FAR/AIM Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The requirement to possess certain certificates, instruments, and equipment is specified under which FAR sections?
• Which topics are explicitly included as prioritized examples?
• Abbreviations and acronyms are found in which AIM resource?
• During a national security interception, what should the pilot take?
• How is Class D airspace typically depicted on sectional charts?
• Which statement about NOTAMs is true?
• Which FAR part governs general operating and flight rules for civil aviation?
• What is the primary purpose of a weather briefing for pilots?
• What is the function of a transponder with altitude reporting (Mode C) in ATC?
• Which topic is included under safety within the AIM content listed?
• In a congested area, what is the minimum altitude you must maintain?
• Which airspace class generally requires ATC clearance to enter in the United States?
• Regarding the target audience, which statement best captures the guideline?
• An Airworthiness Directive (AD) is best described as:
• Which activity counts toward aeronautical experience for certificate eligibility?
• What does Mode C provide in transponder operations?
• What edition indicator is used to guide the edition choice?
• METAR and TAF are weather products. Which statement is true?
• Which topic comes immediately after Experimental Certificates in the provided list?
• To operate within Class B airspace in the United States, a pilot must have:
• What is the general purpose of the AIM’s airspace section?
• Parachute operations are addressed under which FAR sections?
• The flash cards plan suggests a mix of what types of questions?
• Aeronautical Charts are covered in which AIM chapter?
• In radio communications, which term indicates that the speaker has received your message and will comply with the instruction?
• Which FAR part governs Ultralight Vehicles?
• The instrument approach procedure chart provides guidance for approaching and landing in:
• Which statement best describes METAR and TAF?
• Which regulation most directly requires the pilot to carry and present certification documents upon request?
• What is the primary purpose of a Safety Management System (SMS) in aviation?
• Which topic is explicitly mentioned as an example to prioritize?
• When must you notify FAA of a change of address?
• For IFR flight in controlled airspace in the United States, a pilot must have which of the following capabilities?
• If a student wants a mix of regulatory and AIM guidance, what combination should the questions emphasize?
• Which item is a rating rather than a certificate?
• What is required for a pilot to act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft?
• Which Part covers Medical Standards and Certification?
• AIM Chapter 4 covers which area?
• AIM Chapter 2 concerns which topic?
• Which of the following best describes Winds Aloft data?
• What is the primary purpose of a Sectional Chart legend?
• The purpose of anti-collision lights on an aircraft is:
• What is the main purpose of Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) in air traffic procedures?
• The UAS topic in the AIM is included in which chapter?
• Which transponder code indicates radio communications failure?
• A proper preflight inspection includes ensuring airworthiness, required markings/placards, crewmembers at their stations, and safety belts fastened.
• Training centers are governed by which Part?
• Which Part addresses Airspace Areas and Air Traffic Routes?
• Which statement is true about operating in controlled airspace?
• SVFR operations require weather minimums of:
• What are the basic elements of a preflight weight and balance check?
• How is Class C airspace typically depicted on sectional charts?
• The acronym AIM is associated with which type of information?
• Which FAR addresses the general speed limit for most aircraft operating below 10,000 feet MSL?
• What does UAS stand for?
• Instrument approach procedures charts are primarily used to support what type of flight operations?
• Which Part covers Agricultural Aircraft Operations?
• Which statement best describes the prohibition on operations during a medical deficiency?
• Which weather product is used to warn about weather hazards that could affect light aircraft?
• Match the AIM Chapter to its subject: AIM Chapter 4 corresponds to which area?
• Is it legal to act as PIC while under the influence of alcohol or drugs?
• The instrument approach procedure chart is primarily used when:
• Which Part covers Training Centers?
• Eastbound VFR flights typically use which cruising altitude pattern?
• Which regulation specifies the minimum flight time and documentation needed to act as PIC?
• The primary purpose of an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) is:
• In a head-on encounter, what should both aircraft do to avoid collision?
• The AIM is best described as which of the following?
• Which Part covers Operating Small Aircraft Without a Medical Certificate?
• What is the purpose of an annual inspection and who performs it?
• Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS) are covered in which AIM chapter?
• What is a TAF?
• Convective SIGMET addresses convective weather such as thunderstorms.
• What information is typically recorded in a pilot's logbook?
• AIM Chapter 1 covers which topic?
• Which document would you consult for standardized radio calls and phraseology in aviation communications?
• Which airspace class is typically indicated by dashed blue lines on sectional charts?
• What is the recommended first action in an in-flight emergency?
• Which AIM chapter would you consult for airspace information?
• TAF provides forecast weather. Which statement is true about TAF?
• Which regulation covers Commercial Aeronautical Experience?
• Second-class medical certificate is required for which operation?
• What is the purpose of a NOTAM’s D-type message?
• The instrument approach procedure chart is used to provide guidance during:
• For an aircraft that requires a type rating, what is required for a pilot to act as PIC?
• General Requirements are found in which FAR Part?
• Which airspace class forms a solid blue boundary and typically requires an explicit clearance to enter?
• NOTAM FDCs are issued to disseminate information on changes to which of the following?
• 61.129 addresses which topic?
• Which airspace class generally requires ATC clearance to enter?
• Potential Flight Hazards are addressed in which AIM topic?
• Under FAA rules, a crewmember must not act as such within a certain period after drinking. What is that period?
• The Part that addresses Standard Instrument Procedures is which?
• What are the minimum components of a flight review?
• Which publication serves as the source for recommended radio phraseology used in general aviation communications?
• What is the main purpose of an instrument approach procedure (IAP) chart?
• When two aircraft are converging and there is a risk of collision, which has the right-of-way?
• Certification: Air Carriers and Commercial Operators is covered by which FAR Part?
• Which FAR addresses the responsibility of the PIC for safety of flight?
• NOTAM Keywords and Abbreviations are included in which AIM resource?
• Aeronautical experience is required when applying for:
• Which regulation covers ATP Aeronautical Experience?
• Which statement best describes the duration of medical certificates?
• Which statement about right-of-way is correct when two aircraft are converging?
• Which weather product provides the forecast outlook for an airport?
• What additional element may be included in questions besides conceptual and scenario-based?
• What does AIM stand for?
• What is a 'PAVE' assessment used for?
• Helicopter operations are covered in which AIM chapter?
• If a pilot is flying an instrument approach, the IAP chart helps determine:
• Passenger, Passenger Brief & Shoulder Harness are covered by which section range?
• Special VFR (SVFR) operations require weather minimums of:
• If two aircraft of different speeds are converging and there is a risk of collision, what is the recommended action to avoid collision?
• What is a METAR?
• In which airspace is a functioning transponder with altitude reporting generally required?
• Before takeoff, what should the altimeter be set to?
• Which statement about Mode C transponder operation is true?
• Why is minimum fuel considered a planning factor rather than a safety standard?
• What is the purpose of the VFR weather minimums requirement?
• Which part of the FAR addresses maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and records?
• Which of the following documents is NOT required to be aboard a civil aircraft during flight in the United States?
• NTSB Accident Reporting is addressed in which regulation?
• Over other than congested areas, what is the minimum altitude?
• Which regulation governs Commercial pilot eligibility requirements?
• The primary audience for the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) is pilots seeking:
• What is the purpose of 14 CFR 61.5?
• Dropping objects from an aircraft in flight is generally prohibited unless authorized for safety.
• Which statement correctly differentiates a certificate from a rating?
• What does AIM stand for in aviation information manuals?
• Which Part covers Commercial Air Tours and National Parks Air Tour Management?
• What is the primary purpose of a pilot's logbook?
• Wake Turbulence is addressed in which AIM topic?
• Which Part covers Special Use Airspace?
• Which regulation covers ATP eligibility requirements?
• What is the meaning of 'Special Use Airspace' (SUAs) such as MOAs, Restricted, and Prohibited areas?
• AIM Chapter 3 primarily covers which general topic?
• What is the purpose of a preflight weather briefing?
• Medical facts for pilots are covered in which AIM chapter?
• In the event of two-way radio communications failure while operating under IFR, which action should you take?
• What document provides information about runway closures and other restrictions that can affect airport operations?
• Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems are governed by which FAR Part?
• What does IFR stand for in aviation terms?
• 61.153 addresses which topic?
• Which inspection type is required for aircraft operated for hire or used for flight instruction for hire?
• What is the standard pressure setting used to calibrate the aircraft's altimeter at sea level in the U.S. standard atmosphere?
• Which is a direct example of the edition to use according to the plan?
• What is required to operate in Class B airspace?
• If two-way radio communication fails for an IFR flight, what transponder code is used to indicate a radio failure?
• Which statement best describes an AIRMET?
• For operations in controlled airspace, instrument flight rules require what from ATC?
• How is Class B airspace typically depicted on sectional charts?
• What is the meaning of the term 'minimum fuel' in aviation regulations?
• Which document outlines recommended radio procedures and phraseology?
• IAP chart is used to provide guidance during instrument conditions.
• Below 10,000 feet MSL, what is the general speed limit for most aircraft?
• Which section would you consult for details on Special Use Airspace?
• Parachute Operations are addressed in which FAR Part?
• On cold days, with the altimeter set to standard pressure, the indicated altitude will tend to be what relative to the true altitude?
• NOTAM Keywords are listed in which AIM resource?
• Which regulation prescribes the need to carry and present a pilot certificate and medical certificate when requested?
• 61.159 addresses which topic?
• What is the standard pressure setting used for altimeters when flying at flight levels in the United States?
• Which regulation covers Private Pilot Privileges and Limitations?
• Which FAR part covers pilot certification, ratings, medical certificates, and student certificate prerequisites?
• The AIM stands for:
• Which document would a pilot consult for non-regulatory guidance on procedures?
• What is the purpose of radar advisory service?
• Which term is used to declare a distress emergency in flight?
• The language requirement for FAA certificates means the applicant must be able to read, write, speak, and understand:
• Medical certificates are issued by which authority?
• Which statement correctly describes the difference between an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection?
• Safety, Accident & Hazard Reports are covered in which AIM section?
• Which Part covers Pilot Schools?
• Which transponder code indicates a hijacking is in progress?
• Which source provides current weather observations for an airport?
• What is a pilot weather report (PIREPs) used for?
• Which agency issues airman certificates in the United States?
• Which item must be clearly visible on the aircraft as required by regulations?
• Eligibility requirements for a pilot certificate include which elements?
• What authorization is typically required to tow gliders?
• NOTAM disseminates time-critical information affecting flight operations.
• Which topic is not listed in the provided AIM material?
• When making a request to be guided by ATC to join an instrument approach, which phrase would you use?
• To operate in airspace that requires ATC clearance, you must have which of the following?
• What is the primary purpose of a flight plan in instrument flight?
• Standard Instrument Procedures are established in which FAR Part?
• Which airspace class requires two-way radio communication prior to entry but does not require explicit clearance to enter?
• General limitations for student pilots include which of the following?
• The Pilot/Controller Glossary provides standard definitions used by whom?
• When using an IAP chart, a pilot should consult it primarily for:
• 61.133 addresses which topic?
• Which Part is associated with General Requirements?
• What does a steady green light signal from ATC to an aircraft in flight indicate?
• Before solo, a student pilot must have:
• Under VFR fuel requirements, daylight operations must have enough fuel to reach the destination and after that for how long?
• Under FAA rules, a crewmember may not act within a certain time after consuming alcohol. What is that minimum period?
• Emergency Equipment & Altitude Rules are found in which section range?
• Convective SIGMET specifically addresses which weather phenomena?
• AIM Chapter 3 Section 4 addresses which topic?
• Experimental Certificates are covered under which section?
• What is the minimum age to obtain a private pilot certificate in the United States?
• What is the difference between a METAR and a SPECI?
• A standard position report should include which elements?
• Which option is NOT listed as a potential target audience?
• To act as PIC under IFR, you must hold:
• Pilot Schools are regulated under which Part?
• NOTAM stands for which phrase, and what is its purpose?
• What is Winds Aloft?
• Which statement correctly describes ATC clearance during IFR operations?
• A NOTAM FDC information relates to changes in which of the following?
• Which weather product provides forecast for a specific time and location along a route?
• Which statement best describes METAR?
• Which regulation requires a biennial flight review to maintain currency?
• ATIS provides pilots with what type of information?
• Temporary Flight Restrictions are issued to restrict air traffic in what circumstances?
• At what altitude are crew required to use supplemental oxygen?
• Which regulation covers Commercial Pilot Privileges and Limitations?
• Maintenance & Inspections (AVIATES, Owner's responsibility) are described in which section range?
• Which topics are suggested for prioritization?
• What is the primary purpose of the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)?
• In which airspace is a Mode C transponder generally required?
• Which term refers to designated airspace areas with special rules or restrictions for safety and security?
• What is an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
• What is the purpose of the FAR Part 43?
• Which regulation addresses the filing and activation of an IFR flight plan?
• What emphasis is preferred for the practice questions?
• Which of the following best describes a SIGMET?
• Who is primarily responsible for determining if an aircraft is airworthy before flight?
• What is the primary purpose of Class A airspace?
• NOTAM stands for:
• Which FAR addresses inoperative instruments and equipment and the required actions?
• How often must a flight review be completed to act as PIC?
• Which of the following is a required certificate for flight operation?
• Which range corresponds to Emergency Equipment & Altitude Rules?
• Which description best fits the suggested emphasis for the questions?
• NOTAM D-type messages contain information affecting flight operations at a specific aerodrome or associated facilities.
• If a required instrument becomes inoperative in flight, the pilot must:
• The 91.517-521 range covers which topic?
• The material mentions using the current FAR/AIM edition. Which example edition is given?
• Before entering Class B airspace, a pilot must:
• When thunderstorms are encountered en route, the recommended action is to:
• Which of the following is an example of Special Use Airspace?
• What does 14 CFR 91.205 govern?
• What edition of FAR/AIM should be used to ensure accuracy when creating practice questions?
• An IAP chart would be least useful for which scenario?
• Which statement about SPECI is true?
• Towing operations and restricted aircraft are addressed under which FAR sections?
• What is a NOTAM FDC?
• What is the primary purpose of 14 CFR Part 21?
• TAF stands for Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
• Who is the target audience for the flash cards described?
• Which of the following statements best defines who performs an annual inspection of an aircraft?
• Remote Identification of Unmanned Aircraft is used to identify the drone in flight.
• Which Part covers Airspace Areas, Air Traffic Routes?
• The recent flight experience requirement ensures pilots have recently practiced the necessary maneuvers and procedures for currency. Which option best describes its purpose?